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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

14.06.2025 01:56

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Why does Boko Haram attack its own Muslims?

There's no rule.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

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Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Is it true that most people in Québec are bilingual in French and English? If so, why do they often identify as monolingual?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.